[Dixielandjazz] What is a 'musician's musician'?

Jazzjerry@aol.com Jazzjerry@aol.com
Thu, 11 Jul 2002 00:46:57 EDT


In a message dated 10/7/02 23:25:21, JimDBB@aol.com writes:

<< But no one else was able to 
play them with the same flexibility and velocity >>

My 'Tatum was crap' remark was intended as an illustration of how an argument 
can be abreviated. But expanding it again I have often heard Tatum described 
as a 'musician's musician' which raises a more general point. Does a musician 
when he or she listens to another player approach the performance from a 
different viewpoint to a non musician? As a non player who could not make a 
tuneful note out of a comb and paper the technique of a musician is fairly 
incidental. Yes, they have to be able to play the instrument but the overall 
performance including feeling, expression and all those thing which are very 
difficult to describe come into play. A musician on the other hand simply 
because they know the technical theory behind the performance cannot help but 
judge the playing primarily against technical parameters.

As an illustration, maybe more OKOM than Tatum (but don't lets dwell on 
that!), would be the playing of George Lewis. He could be regarded as someone 
who's appeal to his listeners was not based on brilliant technique.

Anyone any comments on the general point?

Cheers,

Jerry
Norwich,
U.K.