[Dixielandjazz] What is a 'musician's musician'?
Jazzjerry@aol.com
Jazzjerry@aol.com
Thu, 11 Jul 2002 00:46:57 EDT
In a message dated 10/7/02 23:25:21, JimDBB@aol.com writes:
<< But no one else was able to
play them with the same flexibility and velocity >>
My 'Tatum was crap' remark was intended as an illustration of how an argument
can be abreviated. But expanding it again I have often heard Tatum described
as a 'musician's musician' which raises a more general point. Does a musician
when he or she listens to another player approach the performance from a
different viewpoint to a non musician? As a non player who could not make a
tuneful note out of a comb and paper the technique of a musician is fairly
incidental. Yes, they have to be able to play the instrument but the overall
performance including feeling, expression and all those thing which are very
difficult to describe come into play. A musician on the other hand simply
because they know the technical theory behind the performance cannot help but
judge the playing primarily against technical parameters.
As an illustration, maybe more OKOM than Tatum (but don't lets dwell on
that!), would be the playing of George Lewis. He could be regarded as someone
who's appeal to his listeners was not based on brilliant technique.
Anyone any comments on the general point?
Cheers,
Jerry
Norwich,
U.K.